Infra vs. Supra

Question
What is the difference in infralapsarianism and supralapsarianism? Which do you think is correct?
Answer
Thanks for your question. Robert Reymond in his "A New Systematic Theology of the Christian Faith" (Nashville: Thomas Nelson Publishers, 1998) reveals the essential differences in infralapsarianism and supralapsarianism: These creation patterns may be viewed as such:

Infralapsarianism

1. the decree to create the world and (all) men
2. the decree that (all) men would fall
3. the election of some fallen men to salvation in Christ (and the reprobation of the others)
4. the decree to redeem the elect by the cross work of Christ
5. the decree to apply Christ's redemptive benefits to the elect

Supralapsarianism (historical)

1. the election of some men to salvation in Christ (and the reprobation of the others)
2. the decree to create the world and both kinds of men
3. the decree that all men would fall
4. the decree to redeem the elect, who are now sinners, by the cross work of Christ
5. the decree to apply Christ's redemptive benefits to these elect sinners

These lists display the traditional understandings of the lapsarian question. However, recent theologians have noted that neither list accurately depicts the logical way in which all reasonable creatures pursue their goals: first, they determine what they ultimately and primarily want, and then they walk backwards, as it were, through all the steps necessary to get there. If God's ultimate goal is the glory of the Lamb in sovereign mercy and righteous judgment, then there is a need for sinners; if there are to be sinners, there must be a fall; if there is a fall, there must be a world created in righteousness; hence, the logical order of God's decrees would be a modified supralapsarianism, as follows:

Supralapsarianism (modified)

1. the election of some men to salvation in Christ (and the reprobation of the rest of sinful mankind in order to make known the riches of God's gracious mercy to the elect)
2. the decree to apply Christ's redemptive benefits to the elect sinners
3. the decree to redeem the elect sinners by the cross work of Christ
4. the decree that men should fall
5. the decree to create the world and men

Personally, I would say that though God is orderly and logical in all he does, he ordained everything at one time. Since there was no time (time was created when the universe was) when God ordained everything than the ordering that anyone may assert is essentially of little value. Since there was no time and everything was by divine fiat, B wasn't ordained after A, or C after B, etc. It just immediately was and is by God's Divine Will, Royal Decree and Spoken Word. In the beginning, God said ... (Isa. 55:11; cf. Num. 23:19; Psa. 89:34; 119:89; Isa. 40:8; 45:23; 46:10; Jer. 23:20; Matt. 5:18; 24:35; Mark 13:31; Luke 21:33).

Related Topics

What is God's age?

Answer by Dr. Joseph R. Nally, Jr.

Dr. Joseph R. Nally, Jr., D.D., M.Div. is the Theological Editor at Third Millennium Ministries (Thirdmill).