Antinomianism and Homosexuality?
Question
Since we are no longer under the law but under grace (Rom 6:14), I can now practice homosexuality, right? The law is abolished, right?
Answer
Wrong! First, Romans 6:14 states, “For sin shall not be your master, because you are not under law, but under grace” and is immediately followed by Romans 6:15, which states, “What then? Shall we sin because we are not under law but under grace? By no means!” Thus, your interpretation of Romans 6:14 does injustice to the context of the verse. Homosexuality is sin! It is still a sin in this dispensation of grace. Grace is not a means to being “without the law” (i.e. moral law). Paul also says, "the law is holy, and the commandment is holy and righteous and good" (Rom. 7:12), "we know that the law is spiritual" (Rom. 7:14), and "I delight in the law of God" (Rom. 7:22). Being no longer "slaves of sin," true Christians, "have become obedient from the heart to the standard of teaching to which [they] were committed and ... have become slaves to righteousness" (Rom. 6:17-18). The liberty which we have in Christ is not license to commit sin (Antinomianism, being without law), but the freedom to obey his will.
Second, a very brief study of the New Testament reveals that the moral law still exists: (1) see what Jesus spoke to the Rich Young Man in Matthew 19:16-19 concerning the law! (2) read what Paul states in Romans 13:8-10 about the law, (3) the apostle John clearly defines sin, telling us that “sin is lawlessness” (1 John 3:4), (4) like Paul, John describes the saints as those “who obey God's commandments and remain faithful to Jesus” (Rev. 14:12), (5) he also gives us this sobering warning: “The man who says, "I know him," but does not do what he commands is a liar, and the truth is not in him” (1 John 2:4), and (6) Peter delivers a similar warning. “If they have escaped the corruption of the world by knowing our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ and are again entangled in it and overcome, they are worse off at the end than they were at the beginning. It would have been better for them not to have known the way of righteousness, than to have known it and then to turn their backs on the sacred command that was passed on to them.” (2 Pet. 2:20-21).
What Paul is clearly revealing to us in Romans 6:14 is that the ceremonial and civil laws of Israel are no longer in effect. In history even those before understood this to be its meaning as well. The Westminster Confession of Faith (19.3-5) states,
... God was pleased to give to the people of Israel, as a church under age, ceremonial laws, containing several typical ordinances; partly of worship, prefiguring Christ.... All which ceremonial laws are now abrogated under the new testament.... To them also, as a body politic, he gave sundry judicial laws, which expired together with the state of that people, not obliging any other now, further than the general equity thereof may require.... The moral law [however] does for ever bind all, as well justified persons as others, to the obedience thereof....Thus, while the moral law of God remains, the civil (or judicial) and ceremonial laws have been abrogated.
Thus, homosexuality is still a sin. There is no biblical reasoning that supports the activity of homosexuality as righteous before holy God.
Answer by: Joseph R. Nally, Theological Editor, on behalf of the staff at IIIM. The opinions expressed by the author are not necessarily the “official position” of Third Millennial Ministries.